Asked by mano
I wld like to ask, would the bank be more generous in computing (and granting) the in-principal approval of my loan application (for new property) if I produce a copy of the OTP duly exercised by buyer of my existing property? Tks.
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thanks for ur reply. i'm aware of the existence of mortagage brokers & the advantage(s) that accompany their use as opposed to approaching the banks direct.
however, the context of my qn really is to know, is there a better chance of obtaining a higher loan with a (signed) OTP doc?
thanks.